SIE Practice Exam 1

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Question 1

The Securities & Exchange Commission (SEC) was created by Congress in

A
1929
B
1933
C
1934
D
1940
Question 1 Explanation: 
The Act of ’34 created the SEC.
Question 2

The term ‘disclaimer’ is most often associated with

A
The fact that no agent can guarantee a customer against loss
B
The fact that unregistered securities are more risky than registered ones
C
The fact that the government cannot guarantee the accuracy of the information in a prospectus
D
None of the above
Question 2 Explanation: 
The SEC reviews the information in a registration statement, it does not approve or disapprove of the information, nor does it guarantee the accuracy of the information disclosures. Therefore no sales agent can say to a prospect that these are ‘government approved’ securities.
Question 3

SIPC, the securities investor protection corporation is:

A
An insurance entity which protects investors investments again market losses up to $500,000
B
An insurance entity which protects investors who are sold worthless securities
C
A Congressional guarantee against losses in the securities markets
D
None of the above
Question 3 Explanation: 
SIPC was set up to protect customer ACCOUNTS in the event of a broker-dealer bankruptcy, not protect investments against loss. Be careful of the wording in this question. Cash & securities in customer accounts are ‘insured’ up to $500,000 in the event the B/D goes bankrupt and the cash and securities can’t be located and properly returned to the customer.
Question 4

In most cases, Federal Securities Laws:

A
Supersede State securities laws
B
Are subordinate to State securities laws
C
Are given the same weight as State securities laws
D
None of the above
Question 4 Explanation: 
Federal securities laws typically supersede State laws.
Question 5

Which of the following are not considered money market securities?

A
T-bills
B
Commercial Paper
C
Reverse Repos
D
ADRs
Question 5 Explanation: 
Since the ‘money market’ includes short term debt instruments only, and since ADRs represent ownership (equity) in foreign stocks, ADRs are not debt.
Question 6

When a corporation goes public, it is issuing:

A
Common stock
B
Preferred stock
C
Convertible bonds
D
Any of the above
Question 6 Explanation: 
Going public means sharing equity ownership (common stock) with public investors, for the first time (Initial public offering, IPO).
Question 7

The term ‘issuer’ most often refers to:

A
A corporation seeking to raise additional capital for expansion or modernization purposes
B
A business which prints up securities certificates such as bonds and stocks
C
A business which has satisfied the listing requirements of one or more approved stock exchanges
D
A business, a municipality, or a federal governmental entity which is seeking to raise capital from the sale of securities.
Question 7 Explanation: 
Whether one considers answers A, B, or C partially accurate, the last answer, D is the most complete therefore best answer.
Question 8

Every publicly-traded corporation is required to have a transfer agent and a registrar. The primary distinction between the two is:

A
They are not different --- they perform the same function
B
The registrar keeps the record of all stock and bond holders
C
The transfer agent transmits the payment for securities from the purchaser to the seller in all secondary market trades.
D
The transfer agent ensures that dividend payments go out to all registered owners of record on the payable date.
Question 8 Explanation: 
This is one of the functions of a Transfer Agent. Registrars make sure that a company does not issue more shares than authorized in the Charter.
Question 9

One of the more attractive features of common stock is that:

A
One cannot lose more than one's investment
B
The stockholders have the right to vote on quarterly dividends
C
The stockholders have the right to choose Officers
D
Any of the above
Question 9 Explanation: 
You cannot lose more than you’ve put at risk. A common stockholder cannot be held liable for any debts of the corporation, therefore they have limited liability.
Question 10

When the market price of a company’s common stock has reached triple digits ($100 or above), the Board of Directors may elect to declare which of the below to make the shares more affordable?

A
Reverse stock split
B
A stock split
C
A stock dividend
D
Any of the above
Question 10 Explanation: 
Splitting a stock provides each shareholder with more shares and the CMV (current market value) of the stock will decline proportionately. Because of the reduced price in the market, it becomes more ‘affordable.’
Question 11

When a corporate Board announces a 10% stock dividend, shareholders know they will be receiving:

A
more shares
B
money
C
both of the above
D
neither of the above
Question 11 Explanation: 
Stock dividends are not Cash dividends – they are dividends in the form of additional shares.
Question 12

Boards of Directors in the publicly-traded sphere are elected by corporate stockholders, using which of the following methods?

A
statutory voting
B
regular voting
C
cumulative voting
D
any of the above are possible voting procedures
Question 12 Explanation: 
All three are correct – in fact, Regular and Statutory are the same.
Question 13

Call option contracts are considered to have intrinsic value:

A
when CMV exceeds exercise price
B
when exercise price exceeds CMV
C
when CMV is equal to exercise price
D
when the option holder has exercised the option
Question 13 Explanation: 
Call option contracts go ‘in the money’ (intrinsic value) when the current market value of the underlying security exceeds the exercise price (strike price) of the option. If a call option's exercise price is $20, and the underlying stock is trading at $25, the intrinsic value of the call option is $5.
Question 14

Reinvestment risk is least present in:

A
2% 10 year Treasury Note
B
3% 10 year AA rated Municipal G.O.
C
4% 10 year AAA rated Corporate debenture
D
Zero coupon Treasury Bond
Question 14 Explanation: 
Since with a Zero coupon instrument there is no annual income to ‘reinvest,’ Zeroes have no reinvestment risk.
Question 15

All of the below are typical features of an ETF except:

A
they are marginable
B
they often are sector-driven portfolios
C
they are traded each day based upon 4:00 pm NAV
D
none of the above are exceptions
Question 15 Explanation: 
Exchange traded funds trade on exchanges at market prices determined by supply and demand – the same as regular corporate stocks.
Question 16

Accumulation units are most often associated with:

A
life insurance
B
annuities
C
mutual funds
D
ETFs
Question 16 Explanation: 
Variable annuities sell ‘accumulation units’ to purchasers, whose price each day is based upon the 4 pm net asset value of the separate account.
Question 17

One of the most frequently issued money market instruments is commercial paper. Typically, this investment has a maximum maturity:

A
of one year
B
of 90 days
C
of 270 days
D
of 180 days
Question 17 Explanation: 
The maximum maturity is 9 months or 270 days.
Question 18

The Securities Industry Essentials examination gives a candidate

A
the right to take one or more of the top-off representative exams
B
the right to trade securities
C
the right to engage in phone solicitation of sales prospects
D
all of the above
Question 18 Explanation: 
This SIE exam enables the candidate to take one of several different FINRA registered reps exam.
Question 19

Certain securities are marginable under Regulation T of the Securities & Exchange Act of 1934 except:

A
listed stocks
B
options
C
NASDAQ stocks
D
all of the above are marginal under Reg. T
Question 19 Explanation: 
Regulation T does not permit margin under normal circumstances on Option contracts.
Question 20

When an investor is bearish on the broad stock market

A
buying puts on the S&P 500 index is an appropriate strategy
B
buying calls on the S&P 500 index is an appropriate strategy
C
buying mutual funds is an appropriate strategy
D
not investing in the market is an appropriate strategy
Question 20 Explanation: 
Buying broad-based Index Put options will provide a hedge against the decline in the broad market.
Question 21

A customer wishes to liquidate 100 shares of ABC common at the market. If the current inside market is 904.78 – 905.57, the client’s transaction will occur disregarding commissions and other charges at

A
904.78
B
905.57
C
at the last transaction price prior to entering this order
D
at a price agreed to between the firm and the customer
Question 21 Explanation: 
The best (inside) bid is the price at which a client’s liquidation (sell) order will be executed.
Question 22

A market maker is obligated

A
to maintain subject quotes during trading hours
B
to maintain and honor firm quotes during trading hours
C
to buy no less than one round lot from a customer at its ask price
D
to sell no less than one round lot to a customer inside the spread
Question 22 Explanation: 
Market making firms post firm quotes during the trading day at which they are obligating themselves to do business with other firms as well as retail customers.
Question 23

The spread between bid and offer

A
typically gets wider as the volume increases
B
typically gets narrower as the volume increases
C
is entirely up to the firm which is making a market in the stock
D
is generally fixed for the trading day
Question 23 Explanation: 
With more active trading in a stock (high volume), the spread between the bid and ask prices usually narrows.
Question 24

The so-called 5% policy pertains to

A
mark ups on retail OTC transactions excepting new issues
B
commissions on NYSE trades exclusively
C
mark ups, mark downs and commissions on retail secondary market trades in municipal bonds
D
none of the above
Question 24 Explanation: 
The FINRA markup markdown and commission policy does not apply to new issues as well as municipal bonds --- MSRB has its own such policy.
Question 25

The principal difference between a selling syndicate and a selling group would be:

A
commissions earned
B
Eastern versus Western liability
C
commitment
D
all of the above
Question 25 Explanation: 
Syndicate implies a firm commitment; group implies best efforts.
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